John 2:19,20,21
QUESTION:
Sorry for the lengthy questions. So I will just give you 2.
Just tell me what these two verse are saying.
Acts 2:32: This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses
1 John 5:20:
"But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of the true one. And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and life everlasting."
Sorry for the lengthy questions. So I will just give you 2.
Just tell me what these two verse are saying.
Acts 2:32: This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses
1 John 5:20:
"But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of the true one. And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and life everlasting."
REPLY:
Hello Lawrence,
I found this question in the "pool". I will just give you a couple of scriptures for you to consider, which may add understanding to the ones you quote.
First, regarding your desire to interpret Acts 2:32... " This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses."
To me, it is simple to understand, if we just substitute the words as follows...
For example:
"This Jesus God resurrected"
"This pie Lawrence baked"
"This portrait Sally painted"
"This car John repaired" etc., etc..
If one is truly dead, one can do nothing (Ec. 9:10)...
including the powerful work of restoring life to the lifeless.
God had to be living, in order to resurrect Christ. Christ, if truly dead, could not resurrect himself (Rom.10:7; Acts 2:32).
God himself, is not capable of dying.
(1Tim. 6:16; John 1:18; Ex.33:20; Ps.90:2; Mal.3:6 A)
To be "mortal" is to be capable of death. To be "immortal"
is not to be capable of dying.
Concerning 1John 5:20:
Reason on: John 14:6
"Jesus said to him: “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7 If YOU men had known me, YOU would have known my Father also; from this moment on YOU know him and have seen him.”
8 Philip said to him: “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.”
9 Jesus said to him: “Have I been with YOU men so long a time, and yet, Philip, you have not come to know me? He that has seen me has seen the Father [also]. How is it you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Do you not believe that ***I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me***? The things I say to YOU men I do not speak of my own originality; but the Father who remains in union with me is doing his works."
How are we to understand this unity with Christ and the Father?
John 1:18,14:
18 No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.
14 So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth.
Notice that we ourselves can be "in union" with the Father, just as Jesus described he was ("I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me")
Matt.11:27:
"All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him."
John 17:6,26:
"I have revealed you to those whom you gave me out of the world. They were yours; you gave them to me and they have obeyed your word. I have made you known to them, and will continue to make you known in order that the love you have for me may be in them and that I myself may be in them."
1John 4:12,15,16:
12 At no time has anyone beheld God. If we continue loving one another, God remains in us and his love is made perfect in us. 13 By this we gain the knowledge that we are remaining ***in union with him and he in union with us***, because he has imparted his spirit to us."
Did not Jesus have God's spirit, so that he could speak truth about God, and "explain" God accurately?
I found this question in the "pool". I will just give you a couple of scriptures for you to consider, which may add understanding to the ones you quote.
First, regarding your desire to interpret Acts 2:32... " This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses."
To me, it is simple to understand, if we just substitute the words as follows...
For example:
"This Jesus God resurrected"
"This pie Lawrence baked"
"This portrait Sally painted"
"This car John repaired" etc., etc..
If one is truly dead, one can do nothing (Ec. 9:10)...
including the powerful work of restoring life to the lifeless.
God had to be living, in order to resurrect Christ. Christ, if truly dead, could not resurrect himself (Rom.10:7; Acts 2:32).
God himself, is not capable of dying.
(1Tim. 6:16; John 1:18; Ex.33:20; Ps.90:2; Mal.3:6 A)
To be "mortal" is to be capable of death. To be "immortal"
is not to be capable of dying.
Concerning 1John 5:20:
Reason on: John 14:6
"Jesus said to him: “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7 If YOU men had known me, YOU would have known my Father also; from this moment on YOU know him and have seen him.”
8 Philip said to him: “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.”
9 Jesus said to him: “Have I been with YOU men so long a time, and yet, Philip, you have not come to know me? He that has seen me has seen the Father [also]. How is it you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Do you not believe that ***I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me***? The things I say to YOU men I do not speak of my own originality; but the Father who remains in union with me is doing his works."
How are we to understand this unity with Christ and the Father?
John 1:18,14:
18 No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.
14 So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth.
Notice that we ourselves can be "in union" with the Father, just as Jesus described he was ("I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me")
Matt.11:27:
"All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him."
John 17:6,26:
"I have revealed you to those whom you gave me out of the world. They were yours; you gave them to me and they have obeyed your word. I have made you known to them, and will continue to make you known in order that the love you have for me may be in them and that I myself may be in them."
1John 4:12,15,16:
12 At no time has anyone beheld God. If we continue loving one another, God remains in us and his love is made perfect in us. 13 By this we gain the knowledge that we are remaining ***in union with him and he in union with us***, because he has imparted his spirit to us."
Did not Jesus have God's spirit, so that he could speak truth about God, and "explain" God accurately?
"For the one whom God has sent speaks the words of God, for God gives the Spirit without limit." (John 3:34) (John 12:49)
Did the unity and oneness which Jesus claimed to have with the Father, mean that they shared the same personage?
1John 4: "15 Whoever makes the confession that Jesus Christ is the Son of God, ***God remains in union with such one and he in union with God***. 16 And we ourselves have come to know and have believed the love that God has in our case. God is love, and he that remains in love remains ***in union with God and God remains in union with him***. "
John 17: "21 that they all may be one, just as You, Father, are in Me, and I in You; that they also may be one in Us, that the world may believe that You sent Me."
Lets look closer at "he that remains in love remains in union with God and God remains in union with him." (1John 4:16 B) ....
Certainly Jesus (the "Word" from heaven) did have Holy Spirit, and was in the Father's love (John 3:35).
God claimed so, when His voice was heard from heaven (while Christ was on earth), calling Jesus his "beloved" son. (Luke 9:35; Matt.3:17; Mark 9:7)
Therefore, through love and spirit, Jesus was certainly "in union" with the Father.
So much so, that all he spoke and taught about the father, was truth.
John 12:49,50:
49 because I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak. 50 Also, I know that his commandment means everlasting life. Therefore the things I speak, just as the Father has told me [them], so I speak [them].”
Chosen humans can do that too!...
Matt.10:19,20:
19 However, when they deliver YOU up, do not become anxious about how or what YOU are to speak; for what YOU are to speak will be given YOU in that hour; 20 for the ones speaking are ***not just YOU, but it is the spirit of YOUR Father that speaks by YOU***."
Certainly Jesus (the "Word" from heaven) did have Holy Spirit, and was in the Father's love (John 3:35).
God claimed so, when His voice was heard from heaven (while Christ was on earth), calling Jesus his "beloved" son. (Luke 9:35; Matt.3:17; Mark 9:7)
Therefore, through love and spirit, Jesus was certainly "in union" with the Father.
So much so, that all he spoke and taught about the father, was truth.
John 12:49,50:
49 because I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak. 50 Also, I know that his commandment means everlasting life. Therefore the things I speak, just as the Father has told me [them], so I speak [them].”
Chosen humans can do that too!...
Matt.10:19,20:
19 However, when they deliver YOU up, do not become anxious about how or what YOU are to speak; for what YOU are to speak will be given YOU in that hour; 20 for the ones speaking are ***not just YOU, but it is the spirit of YOUR Father that speaks by YOU***."
That doesn't make those chosen humans, God.
At John 17:21,22 ...Jesus asked the Father that his followers could be "one", just as Christ and his Father were "one". Therefore, the unity Christ has with the Father is identical to the unity which is possible between our Saviors and the faithful chosen ones (Matt.22:14; Col.3:12,13,14,15,16,17). Since "all sin and fall short of the glory of God", we are assured that this "unity" does not include becoming Almighty God Himself. (Rom.3:23; Isa.40:25; 42:8)
John 8:28,29:
28 Therefore Jesus said: “When once YOU have lifted up the Son of man, then YOU will know that I am [he], and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things. 29 And he that sent me is with me; he did not abandon me to myself, because I always do the things pleasing to him.”
With such subjection, understanding, and blessing from the Father, clearly, he could impart "intellectual capacity" to understand the Father to others also.
The final part of your scripture at 1John 5:20:
"And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and life everlasting."
The only way to be in union with the Father, as Jesus was in union with him, is through Christ (John 14:6).
Again, if you are confusing Jesus with the "true God", lets substitute again....
"And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ (whom he sent forth). This is the true God and life everlasting."
"And we are in union with Lawrence, by means of this good pie he baked. This is the true master chef, and the source of tastiness.
Does this indicate that the pie, is the true chef?
I have assumed that your unstated question is one of being perplexed by the scriptures you cited...in that you feel they indicate that Jesus may be God. Hopefully, a deliberate and careful examination of the scriptures I cited, will help clarify.
(see Romans 8:11; 10:7,9)
Best Regards,
At John 17:21,22 ...Jesus asked the Father that his followers could be "one", just as Christ and his Father were "one". Therefore, the unity Christ has with the Father is identical to the unity which is possible between our Saviors and the faithful chosen ones (Matt.22:14; Col.3:12,13,14,15,16,17). Since "all sin and fall short of the glory of God", we are assured that this "unity" does not include becoming Almighty God Himself. (Rom.3:23; Isa.40:25; 42:8)
John 8:28,29:
28 Therefore Jesus said: “When once YOU have lifted up the Son of man, then YOU will know that I am [he], and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things. 29 And he that sent me is with me; he did not abandon me to myself, because I always do the things pleasing to him.”
With such subjection, understanding, and blessing from the Father, clearly, he could impart "intellectual capacity" to understand the Father to others also.
The final part of your scripture at 1John 5:20:
"And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and life everlasting."
The only way to be in union with the Father, as Jesus was in union with him, is through Christ (John 14:6).
Again, if you are confusing Jesus with the "true God", lets substitute again....
"And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ (whom he sent forth). This is the true God and life everlasting."
"And we are in union with Lawrence, by means of this good pie he baked. This is the true master chef, and the source of tastiness.
Does this indicate that the pie, is the true chef?
I have assumed that your unstated question is one of being perplexed by the scriptures you cited...in that you feel they indicate that Jesus may be God. Hopefully, a deliberate and careful examination of the scriptures I cited, will help clarify.
(see Romans 8:11; 10:7,9)
Best Regards,
Pearl
---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------
QUESTION Received: What I was trying to point out is that the n.w.t. left out is the word has " This Jesus [has] God. a misprint in the n.w.t.
Now to 1John 5:20
But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of the true one. And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and life everlasting.
You never mention anything at all on "by means of his Son Jesus Christ. THIS IS THE TRUE GOD AND LIFE EVERLASTING
Don't go around the world. Does this not say that Jesus is God???????
I think if you go to the original MSS you will find in Jn 14:9-10 that it reads
"seeing me has seen the Father" [V10] do you believe that I in the Father and the Father in me is" not union. So why the adding of words????? By adding/changing words this would qualify you for Deut. 4:2; Prov. 30:6; Gal 1:6-9; Rev 22:18-19
One other thing. Jesus raised Him self from the dead:
John 2:19-21”
[19]In answer Jesus said to them: “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” [20]Therefore the Jews said: “This temple was built in forty-six years, and will you raise it up in three days?” [21]But he was talking about the temple of his body.
Take note that Jesus said. Not God in verse [19] "I" WILL RAISE IT UP
Answer:
Hello again,
You are right. Jesus raised THE TEMPLE of his "body" (John 2:21). But what body is that? Was he speaking of his body of flesh which he sacrificed... or was he speaking of the "Temple of his Body"? What is the Temple of Christ's Body? (1Cor. 12:27; 3:16; Rom.8:11; Eph.2:6,20-22; 1Pet. 2:5).
Just as Jesus said that God was in him (not in union);
God is also IN those members of Christ's Body IN and God's Temple
(Rom.8:9-10; 1Cor. 3:16; John 17:21,23).
I will highlight the words that go together from the verse you cite (1John 5:20), so that perhaps you can identify who is being talked about.
Your quoted scripture is:
"But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of ***THE TRUE ONE***. And we are in union with ***THE TRUE ONE***, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is ***THE TRUE GOD*** and life everlasting.
Can you see that the last sentence,
I will highlight the words that go together from the verse you cite (1John 5:20), so that perhaps you can identify who is being talked about.
Your quoted scripture is:
"But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of ***THE TRUE ONE***. And we are in union with ***THE TRUE ONE***, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is ***THE TRUE GOD*** and life everlasting.
Can you see that the last sentence,
" This is ***THE TRUE GOD*** and life everlasting." is also the one being talked about as ***"THE TRUE ONE"***??
This scripture is telling us that the true one being talked about, is the true God. It says,
"THIS IS the true God".
In the second sentence, it says that we get knowledge of the True One (the true God) "by means of his Son Jesus Christ."
I respect your right to believe whatever you wish. I myself do not see 1John 5:20 as saying Jesus is the Son who gives knowledge about himself.
The second sentence, "And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ." clearly indicates to me that Jesus is the means by which we are in union with someone else... the true one; and that this "true one" is not the means by which we are unified with that one, ...Jesus is. I see two distinct persons here...not one.
Otherwise, why did it not just simply say that we are in union with Christ?
Why is God mentioned, AND then GOD'S SON?
Also, you should be told that the Greek of 1John 5:20 (when it says that "WE are in union with the true one" (meaning us human beings)...it is the same Greek "we are in" just as you say Jesus "is in" the Father. (Go look at the Greek Interlinear)
Regarding John 14:10:
Your comment... "'do you believe that I in the Father and the Father in me is' not union."
Whether you translate this Greek as "in me is", "I in" or "union", it is the same Greek word in 1John 2:5,6 (and the scripture I already gave you 1John 5:20). If you look up the Greek, you will see that. However you translate it, it says at
1John 2:5,6,8,24; 1John 2:29 that the disciples were "in God" the same as Jesus was at John 14:10. It is THE SAME GREEK WORD. Does that also mean that the disciples are God?
This scripture is telling us that the true one being talked about, is the true God. It says,
"THIS IS the true God".
In the second sentence, it says that we get knowledge of the True One (the true God) "by means of his Son Jesus Christ."
I respect your right to believe whatever you wish. I myself do not see 1John 5:20 as saying Jesus is the Son who gives knowledge about himself.
The second sentence, "And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ." clearly indicates to me that Jesus is the means by which we are in union with someone else... the true one; and that this "true one" is not the means by which we are unified with that one, ...Jesus is. I see two distinct persons here...not one.
Otherwise, why did it not just simply say that we are in union with Christ?
Why is God mentioned, AND then GOD'S SON?
Also, you should be told that the Greek of 1John 5:20 (when it says that "WE are in union with the true one" (meaning us human beings)...it is the same Greek "we are in" just as you say Jesus "is in" the Father. (Go look at the Greek Interlinear)
Regarding John 14:10:
Your comment... "'do you believe that I in the Father and the Father in me is' not union."
Whether you translate this Greek as "in me is", "I in" or "union", it is the same Greek word in 1John 2:5,6 (and the scripture I already gave you 1John 5:20). If you look up the Greek, you will see that. However you translate it, it says at
1John 2:5,6,8,24; 1John 2:29 that the disciples were "in God" the same as Jesus was at John 14:10. It is THE SAME GREEK WORD. Does that also mean that the disciples are God?
(1Cor. 6:17; Eph.2:18)
Let me quote John 17:21 again...
"John17: "21 that they all may be one, just as You, Father, are in Me, and I in You; that they also may be one in Us, that the world may believe that You sent Me."---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Regarding John 2:19-21
If you examine the context of Jesus' comment, as well as the same account in Matt. 24:1,2; you will see that the disciples were already talking about the literal Jewish temple. Jesus tied that temple of worship into the meaning of his words. With the death of his body, the Jewish temple would no longer be the place of worship for God's people. (John 4:21)
Regarding John 2:19-21
If you examine the context of Jesus' comment, as well as the same account in Matt. 24:1,2; you will see that the disciples were already talking about the literal Jewish temple. Jesus tied that temple of worship into the meaning of his words. With the death of his body, the Jewish temple would no longer be the place of worship for God's people. (John 4:21)
Jesus, by fulfilling the Law by means of the ransom, would tear down that form of worship. By his following resurrection, a new temple would be born. In speaking of his "Body" being "raised up", he was speaking of the new temple of God....Christ's new Body (Eph.2:6,20-22). He was not referring to his personal resurrection, but rather, the raising of the new temple of true worship (his "body"/congregation)....
See.....
1Cor. 3:16 "Do YOU not know that YOU people are God’s temple, and that the spirit of God dwells in YOU? 17 If anyone destroys the temple of God, God will destroy him; for the temple of God is holy, which [temple] YOU people are."
and
Col.1:18 and he is the head of THE BODY, the congregation.
and
Eph.1:22 He also subjected all things under his feet, and made him head over all things to the congregation, 23 WHICH IS HIS BODY, the fullness of him who fills up all things in all.
and
Eph.4:15 But speaking the truth, let us by love grow up in all things into him who is the head, Christ. 16 From him ALL THE BODY, by being harmoniously joined together and being made to cooperate through every joint that gives what is needed, according to the functioning of each respective member in due measure, makes for the growth of the body for the building up of itself in love.
and
Eph.5:23 because a husband is head of his wife as the Christ also is head of the congregation, he being a savior of [this] BODY.
See.....
1Cor. 3:16 "Do YOU not know that YOU people are God’s temple, and that the spirit of God dwells in YOU? 17 If anyone destroys the temple of God, God will destroy him; for the temple of God is holy, which [temple] YOU people are."
and
Col.1:18 and he is the head of THE BODY, the congregation.
and
Eph.1:22 He also subjected all things under his feet, and made him head over all things to the congregation, 23 WHICH IS HIS BODY, the fullness of him who fills up all things in all.
and
Eph.4:15 But speaking the truth, let us by love grow up in all things into him who is the head, Christ. 16 From him ALL THE BODY, by being harmoniously joined together and being made to cooperate through every joint that gives what is needed, according to the functioning of each respective member in due measure, makes for the growth of the body for the building up of itself in love.
and
Eph.5:23 because a husband is head of his wife as the Christ also is head of the congregation, he being a savior of [this] BODY.
----------------
Only through Jesus' death and resurrection, would this "body" of his, come into existence. He is the foundation stone of God's eternal spiritual Temple, which the previous builders had rejected (Matt.21:42; Eph.2:20-21; 1Pet. 2:5)
With the ransom paid, the Jewish religion became fulfilled, and sacrifices at the Jewish "temple" were no longer the means of worshiping God in spirit and truth. Worship would now take place through the "body of Christ", God's New Temple, instead of the Jewish temple. By Jesus' death, he would transform true worship from the Jewish Law and Temple, to the Christian Congregation (the New Temple OF HIS BODY) who would obey the Law of the Christ (Love).
The new TEMPLE of Christ's BODY, are...
1Cor. 3:16 "Do YOU not know that YOU people are God’s temple, and that the spirit of God dwells in YOU? 17 If anyone destroys the temple of God, God will destroy him; for the temple of God is holy, which [temple] YOU people are."
The new TEMPLE of Christ's BODY, are...
1Cor. 3:16 "Do YOU not know that YOU people are God’s temple, and that the spirit of God dwells in YOU? 17 If anyone destroys the temple of God, God will destroy him; for the temple of God is holy, which [temple] YOU people are."
The new "Temple" was Christ's body, which had Christ as it's Head. The body of Christ, (according to the Bible) is Jesus' anointed Congregation. This would be raised up due to the New Covenant (Eph.2:6), paid with Christ's blood. No longer would proper worship take place in a temple made of dead stone, but of living stones...
1Peter 2:5 YOU yourselves also as living stones are being built up a spiritual house for the purpose of a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ."
What Jesus accomplished by his death, should not be made invalid by insisting that he did not really die, in that he was alive enough to raise himself. (did you read Ec.9:10???)
If this is what you want to believe, you are free to do so. I gave you the scriptures that indicate the true meaning of the Greek words, in my first response.
If you consider those words, "going around the world", then it is clear you are not seeking to benefit from the scriptures I have cited, and the truth I work to provide you with, through them.
(Rom.10:7,9; Acts 2:32).
I sent you an answer believing that you wanted to know more about your cited scriptures. This I see now, is not true.
I wish you well, and hope that you are able to absorb and reason on the information I have sent you. Whatever you choose to do, you are free to do. I wish you the best, but please do not attempt to bend my mind away from what I have found to be the truth, by means of decades of studying the Greek words of the scriptures, and being a part of that Body/Temple of Christ, according to God's Holy Spirit and Will.
Regarding your citing of Deut. 4:2; Prov.30:6; Gal.1:6,7,8,9; Rev.22:18,19; you should keep in mind that many of the scriptures we have cited, claim that Jesus is "God's Son", and that he really died. Why do you remove those words?
Please consider,
Romans 8:11; Romans 6:4; Romans 4:24; Romans 10:9; Acts 2:24; Acts 3:14,15,26; Acts 4:10; Acts 5:30,31; Acts 10:39,40; Acts 13:30,33,34,37
1Cor. 6:14; Gal.1:1; Col.2:12
Good scriptures to show what Temple/Body Jesus was raising,
are 1Cor. 3:16 and 1Pet. 2:5; Heb.12:22,23; Eph.2:6.
1Pet. 2:5 says that the Temple is being "built up". It is built on the foundation cornerstone Christ, and the ransom he provided (Eph.2:20,21,22).
This is why he was declaring that by means of his death, he would tear down the Jewish system and covenant, and raise up a new covenant and religious people, who would worship in spirit and truth (John 4:24)....
get rid of the old priesthood of the temple, and raise up a new priesthood of living stones. (Rev.5:9,10).
Many people are actually blinded by Satan, so that the light of Truth does not get through (2Cor. 4:3,4). According to the scriptures, it is very serious that we accept the distinction between the Father and Christ (1John 2:19,20,21,22,23,24).
pearl
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1Pet. 2:5 says that the Temple is being "built up". It is built on the foundation cornerstone Christ, and the ransom he provided (Eph.2:20,21,22).
This is why he was declaring that by means of his death, he would tear down the Jewish system and covenant, and raise up a new covenant and religious people, who would worship in spirit and truth (John 4:24)....
get rid of the old priesthood of the temple, and raise up a new priesthood of living stones. (Rev.5:9,10).
Many people are actually blinded by Satan, so that the light of Truth does not get through (2Cor. 4:3,4). According to the scriptures, it is very serious that we accept the distinction between the Father and Christ (1John 2:19,20,21,22,23,24).
pearl
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